Salesforce Practice Exam

1. What is a junction object in Salesforce used for?

A) To create many-to-one relationships between objects.
B) To create many-to-many relationships between objects.
C) To create one-to-one relationships between objects.
D) To create lookup relationships between objects.
E) To create master-detail relationships between objects.

2. Which of the following is not a type of Salesforce report format?

A) Tabular
B) Matrix
C) Summary
D) Dashboard
E) Joined

3. What is the purpose of the Recycle Bin in Salesforce?

A) To store deleted records temporarily.
B) To permanently delete records.
C) To store archived records.
D) To backup records.
E) To restore records automatically.

4. In Salesforce, what does CRUD stand for?

A) Create, Read, Update, Delete
B) Create, Retrieve, Update, Delete
C) Copy, Read, Update, Delete
D) Copy, Retrieve, Update, Delete
E) Create, Remove, Update, Delete

5. Which Salesforce feature allows users to manage records that are related to the same object?

A) Roll-Up Summary Fields
B) Lookup Fields
C) Master-Detail Relationships
D) Self-Relationship
E) External Objects

6. What is a key difference between a lookup relationship and a master-detail relationship?

A) Lookup relationship is a many-to-many relationship.
B) Master-detail relationship does not support roll-up summary fields.
C) Master-detail relationship has a tighter coupling between objects.
D) Lookup relationship automatically deletes child records when the parent record is deleted.
E) Lookup relationship enforces data integrity through cascading delete.

7. Which of the following is a Salesforce data import tool?

A) Data Import Wizard
B) Data Migration Tool
C) Data Loader
D) Data Connector
E) Data Transformer

8. What is the maximum number of master-detail relationships a custom object can have?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D D) 4
E) 5

9. What is an important characteristic of a record type in Salesforce?

A) It allows for different page layouts and business processes.
B) It limits the number of records in an object.
C) It controls field-level security.
D) It sets record-level security.
E) It determines user permissions.

10. Which tool is used to build and customize Salesforce Lightning pages?

A) Visualforce
B) App Builder
C) Process Builder
D) Flow Builder
E) Schema Builder

11. What is the purpose of a Salesforce sandbox?

A) To test code in a production environment.
B) To develop and test new customizations and configurations without affecting the production environment.
C) To store archived data.
D) To manage user permissions.
E) To perform data backups.

12. Which Salesforce feature allows for the real-time routing of work to the most appropriate agents based on skill set and availability?

A) Case Assignment Rules
B) Omni-Channel
C) Escalation Rules
D) Workflow Rules
E) Auto-Response Rules

13. What is the purpose of the Salesforce Shield platform?

A) To provide enhanced encryption, auditing, and monitoring for security and compliance.
B) To manage user licenses.
C) To automate business processes.
D) To integrate Salesforce with external systems.
E) To manage customer support cases.

14. What is the role of an Apex trigger in Salesforce?

A) To create custom objects.
B) To automate tasks in Lightning Experience.
C) To execute custom actions before or after changes to Salesforce records.
D) To create custom user interfaces.
E) To integrate with external databases.

15. Which Salesforce tool is used for data visualization and advanced analytics?

A) Reports
B) Dashboards
C) Tableau CRM (formerly Einstein Analytics)
D) Visualforce
E) Lightning App Builder

16. Which type of field cannot be a controlling field in a field dependency?

A) Custom Checkbox
B) Custom Picklist
C) Standard Picklist
D) Custom Text
E) Custom Multi-Select Picklist

17. What is a primary use case for Salesforce Flow?

A) Creating reports and dashboards
B) Automating complex business processes with visual workflows
C) Customizing page layouts
D) Managing user permissions
E) Importing and exporting data

18. Which of the following is true about external objects in Salesforce?

A) They store data within Salesforce.
B) They are used for real-time data integration with external systems.
C) They can be used in master-detail relationships.
D) They support roll-up summary fields.
E) They are limited to 1 million records.

19. What is the purpose of the Schema Builder in Salesforce?

A) To create reports and dashboards
B) To visually manage objects, fields, and relationships
C) To configure user permissions
D) To build custom user interfaces
E) To automate business processes

20. Which Salesforce feature allows users to define and automate actions and notifications based on specific criteria?

A) Workflow Rules
B) Process Builder
C) Flow Builder
D) Approval Processes
E) All of the above

21. Which Salesforce functionality is used to track changes to records over time?

A) Field History Tracking
B) Audit Trail
C) Debug Logs
D) Sharing Rules
E) Role Hierarchy

22. What is the maximum number of roll-up summary fields you can have per object?

A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
E) 25

23. Which type of dashboard component displays data as a percentage of a whole?

A) Bar Chart
B) Line Chart
C) Pie Chart
D) Funnel Chart
E) Donut Chart

24. What is the purpose of the AppExchange in Salesforce?

A) To integrate Salesforce with external systems
B) To create and manage custom objects
C) To find and install third-party applications and integrations
D) To automate business processes
E) To configure user permissions

25. What does the “View All” permission allow a user to do?

A) View all data in the organization, regardless of sharing rules and settings.
B) Edit all data in the organization.
C) Delete all data in the organization.
D) View all records in a specific object.
E) View all records they own.

26. Which of the following is not a valid data type for a custom field in Salesforce?

A) Checkbox
B) Formula
C) Email
D) Auto Number
E) File

27. What is the purpose of the Global Actions menu in Salesforce?

A) To create custom objects
B) To perform quick actions from anywhere in the Salesforce app
C) To customize page layouts
D) To manage user permissions
E) To import and export data

28. Which Salesforce feature helps in managing data quality by identifying and merging duplicate records?

A) Data Import Wizard
B) Data Loader
C) Duplicate Management
D) Schema Builder
E) Validation Rules

29. What is a Lightning App Builder used for?

A) To create custom objects
B) To design and build custom pages for Lightning Experience and Salesforce mobile app
C) To automate business processes
D) To manage data import and export
E) To configure user permissions

30. Which of the following statements is true about Salesforce Chatter?

A) It is used for managing customer support cases.
B) It is an enterprise social network for collaboration.
C) It is used for creating custom objects.
D) It is a tool for importing and exporting data.
E) It is used for building reports and dashboards.

31. What is a key benefit of using Salesforce’s multi-tenant architecture?

A) Each customer has their own dedicated hardware.
B) Data is stored on-premises.
C) Efficient resource utilization and scalability.
D) Custom code is not allowed.
E) Integration with external systems is not supported.

32. Which of the following is true about Salesforce Communities?

A) They are used to store large data volumes.
B) They enable external users to access Salesforce data and collaborate.
C) They are only available to Salesforce admins.
D) They cannot be customized.
E) They do not support custom branding.

33. Which feature in Salesforce allows you to create custom, reusable components for pages?

A) Visualforce
B) Lightning Components
C) Apex Classes
D) Process Builder
E) Schema Builder

34. What is the purpose of the Salesforce AppExchange Security Review?

A) To evaluate the performance of applications.
B) To ensure applications meet Salesforce’s security standards.
C) To provide user training for new applications.
D) To manage application updates.
E) To integrate applications with external systems.

35. Which report format allows you to group and summarize data by rows and columns?

A) Tabular Report
B) Summary Report
C) Matrix Report
D) Joined Report
E) Dashboard

36. What is the function of the Salesforce Mobile App?

A) To manage data backups.
B) To provide access to Salesforce data and functionality on mobile devices.
C) To create custom objects.
D) To integrate with third-party applications.
E) To design and build custom pages.

37. Which Salesforce feature is used to automate complex business processes visually?

A) Workflow Rules
B) Process Builder
C) Visualforce
D) Lightning Components
E) Schema Builder

38. What does a “sandbox” environment in Salesforce allow you to do?

A) Run production-level operations.
B) Test new configurations and code changes without affecting the production environment.
C) Store backup data.
D) Monitor user activities.
E) Automate business processes.

39. Which field type can be used as an external ID in Salesforce?

A) Text
B) Email
C) Number
D) Phone
E) All of the above

40. Which of the following is not a Salesforce Standard Object?

A) Account
B) Contact
C) Invoice
D) Opportunity
E) Lead

41. Which feature in Salesforce is used to track changes to field values over time?

A) Field History Tracking
B) Audit Trail
C) Debug Logs
D) Sharing Rules
E) Role Hierarchy

42. What is the purpose of the Salesforce Lightning Experience?

A) To provide a classic user interface.
B) To offer a modern, responsive user interface with enhanced features.
C) To manage data backups.
D) To create custom objects.
E) To integrate with third-party applications.

43. Which Salesforce tool allows for the creation of automated business processes using a visual interface?

A)

43. Which Salesforce tool allows for the creation of automated business processes using a visual interface?

A) Workflow Rules
B) Process Builder
C) Visualforce
D) Schema Builder
E) Apex Classes

44. What is a key benefit of using Salesforce Shield?

A) Enhanced data encryption, auditing, and monitoring for security and compliance.
B) Simplified user interface.
C) Faster data processing.
D) Integrated social media tools.
E) Improved data import capabilities.

45. Which type of report cannot be used in a dashboard component?

A) Tabular Report without a row limit
B) Summary Report
C) Matrix Report
D) Joined Report
E) Tabular Report with a row limit

46. Which Salesforce feature allows users to connect to external databases without storing data within Salesforce?

A) Custom Objects
B) External Objects
C) Standard Objects
D) Junction Objects
E) Visualforce

47. What is the purpose of Salesforce Einstein Analytics?

A) To create custom objects.
B) To provide advanced data visualization and predictive analytics.
C) To automate business processes.
D) To manage user permissions.
E) To integrate with third-party applications.

48. Which of the following is a true statement about custom settings in Salesforce?

A) They cannot be used in formulas.
B) They are used to store static data that can be accessed across the organization.
C) They are only available in the Lightning Experience.
D) They cannot be used in Apex code.
E) They do not support hierarchy types.

49. Which feature in Salesforce allows users to manage workflows and approval processes in a graphical interface?

A) Workflow Rules
B) Process Builder
C) Approval Processes
D) Flow Builder
E) Visualforce

50. What is the purpose of Salesforce Governor Limits?

A) To restrict user permissions.
B) To ensure efficient resource usage and prevent monopolization of resources by any single organization.
C) To limit data storage.
D) To manage user licenses.
E) To control API access.

51. What is a key feature of Salesforce Lightning Web Components (LWC)?

A) They are based on the Aura framework.
B) They use standard web technologies like HTML and JavaScript.
C) They do not support custom events.
D) They are only available in Classic Experience.
E) They require Visualforce for implementation.

52. Which Salesforce feature helps ensure data consistency by preventing duplicate records?

A) Data Loader
B) Duplicate Management
C) Data Import Wizard
D) Schema Builder
E) Validation Rules

53. What is the maximum number of master-detail relationships a custom object can have in Salesforce?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

54. Which feature allows you to define custom logic and processes for Salesforce objects using point-and-click tools?

A) Apex Classes
B) Visualforce
C) Process Builder
D) Schema Builder
E) Data Loader

55. What is the primary purpose of Salesforce Service Cloud?

A) To manage sales processes.
B) To provide tools for customer service and support.
C) To automate marketing campaigns.
D) To integrate with external systems.
E) To create custom objects.

56. Which of the following is not a valid Salesforce user license type?

A) Salesforce Platform
B) Lightning Platform
C) Chatter Free
D) Salesforce Shield
E) Customer Community

57. What does the "Manage Public Reports" permission allow a user to do?

A) Create and edit reports in the "My Personal Custom Reports" folder.
B) Create, edit, and delete reports in public folders.
C) Manage user access to reports.
D) Share reports with external users.
E) Export reports to Excel.

58. Which Salesforce feature allows for the automatic creation of records based on specific criteria?

A) Workflow Rules
B) Auto-Response Rules
C) Assignment Rules
D) Escalation Rules
E) Approval Processes

59. What is the purpose of the Salesforce "App Launcher"?

A) To create custom objects.
B) To provide a central place to access all apps and objects in Salesforce.
C) To manage user permissions.
D) To automate business processes.
E) To integrate with third-party applications.

60. Which Salesforce feature is used to define and enforce business rules across the organization?

A) Workflow Rules
B) Validation Rules
C) Process Builder
D) Approval Processes
E) Flow Builder